JEE Main 20236 Apr, Evening shiftMathematicsEasyIntegral Calculus369× since 2002Let f(x)f(x)f(x) be a function satisfying f(x)+f(π−x)=π2,∀x∈Rf(x)+f(\pi-x)=\pi^{2}, \forall x \in \mathbb{R}f(x)+f(π−x)=π2,∀x∈R. Then \int_\limits{0}^{\pi} f(x) \sin x d x is equal to :AOption A. π2\pi^{2}π2BOption B. π22\frac{\pi^{2}}{2}2π2COption C. 2π22 \pi^{2}2π2DOption D. π24\frac{\pi^{2}}{4}4π2CheckSkip · show solution
