JEE Main 2010Annual, Paper 1MathematicsMediumIntegral Calculus369× since 2002Let p(x)p(x)p(x) be a function defined on RRR such that p′(x)=p′(1−x),p'(x)=p'(1-x),p′(x)=p′(1−x), for all x∈[0,1],p(0)=1x \in \left[ {0,1} \right],p\left( 0 \right) = 1x∈[0,1],p(0)=1 and p(1)=41.p(1)=41.p(1)=41. Then ∫01p(x)dx\int\limits_0^1 {p\left( x \right)dx}0∫1p(x)dx equals :AOption A. 212121BOption B. 414141COption C. 424242DOption D. 41\sqrt {41}41CheckSkip · show solution