If ∫₀^((π)/2) (cot x)/(cot x + cos ecx) dx = m(π + n), then m.n is equal to

Integral Calculus: JEE Main 2019 Mathematics question

JEE Main 2019 · 12 Apr, Morning shift · Q3364

JEE Main 201912 Apr, Morning shiftMathematicsEasyIntegral Calculus369× since 2002

\int\limits_0^{{\pi \over 2}} {{{\cot x} \over {\cot x + \cos ecx}}} dx

= m(

\pi

+ n), then m.n is equal to

JEE Main 2019 · 12 Apr, Morning shift · Q3364

JEE Main 201912 Apr, Morning shiftMathematicsEasyIntegral Calculus369× since 2002

\int\limits_0^{{\pi \over 2}} {{{\cot x} \over {\cot x + \cos ecx}}} dx

= m(

\pi

+ n), then m.n is equal to